I May Be a Frigid, Socially Inept Loser, But On the Bright Side, At Least I Know I Don't Have Any STDs
I just had all this hilarious right-wing, anti-abortion/birth-control/euthanasia literature shoved under my door by some of the more extreme conservatives who lurk in the darker corners of my Jesuit university. My favourite is the anti-Condoms leaflet:
"Condoms have been shown to reduce the risk of gonorrhea infection somewhat in men, but not in women. And they have been shown to reduce the risk of HIV/AIDS infection by 85%. However, AIDS is a routinely fatal disease. Using condoms still leaves a 15% risk of HIV infection compared to not using a condom."
Correct me if I'm wrong, but I've been told that AIDS itself is not "routinely fatal," but is instead a disease that weakens your immune system enough so that illnesses as mild the common cold can kill you. That's just me being pedantic. What I'm more concerned with is the fact that their reasoning for one not using condoms consists of the fact that using condoms still allows for a margin of risk in HIV infection. Would you rather have an 85% or 0% reduction in risk of HIV infection? Under the logic of "Heritage House," the publishers of this pamphlet, you are a smart consumer and a conscientious Catholic if you prefer the latter.
Check out the source from which the authors of this pamphlet received this information: http://www.niaid.nih.gov/dmid/stds/condomreport.pdf
As you will see, the research results from which the writers of this pamphlet extracted their conclusion that condoms are ineffective was deemed incomplete by the Panel of experts who peer-reviewed the material: "The Panel concluded, however, that because of limitations in study designs there was insufficient evidence from the epidemiological studies on these diseases to draw definite conclusions about the effectiveness of the latex male condom in reducing the transmission of these diseases," "The Panel stressed that the absence of definitive conclusions reflected inadequacies of the evidence available and should not be interpreted as proof of the adequacy or inadequacy of the condom to reduce the risk of STDs other than HIV transmission in men and women and gonorrhea in men" (NIAID, ii).
So what does the pamphlet do? It interprets the results as "proof of the...inadequacy of the condom to reduce the risk of STDs" by printing a table saying that of "condom protection" there was "none found" when studying Chlamydia, Trichomoniasis, HPV, Genital Herpes, Syphilis, Gonorrhea and AIDS.
It then goes on to point out that "condoms are subject to breakage and slippage." Correct, more reason that people should be educated in the proper use of such birth-control in order to prevent such "breakage and slippage." The pamphlet sites that "Older tests have shown rates of slippage and breakage to be 1 to 15%," which is irrelevent information, then going on to state that "the CDC, using only newer studies that were rigorously controlled and peer-reviewed, still found a combined rate of between 1.6% and 3.6%. A 3.6% rate is equivalent to a failure 1 in 28 times." However, a 1.6% is 1 slippage or breakage, not a failure, in 63. When a condom slips or breaks, it is not a “failure,” it just means that there is a slightly higher risk of disease transmission. It does not definitively mean that you will be infected with a sexually transmitted disease. Neither does the (probably exaggerated) claim that “All condoms have naturally occurring holes, or voids.” Case in point, the very same study projects that “failure to use a condom would obviously result in certain exposure (1.0 probability)” and that “Conversely, condom use without breakage or slippage would reduce (if not eliminate) exposure dramatically (0.0 probability). However, and perhaps just as importantly, condom use—even in the event of breakage, leakage, or slippage—would also result in greatly reduced exposures” (NIAID, 8).
I have no way of verifying the other statistics quoted by the leaflet, because it cites a study by C. M. Roland and M. J. Schroeder, both Naval scientists, called “Intrinsic defect effects on NR permeability.” However, I’m guessing, from sheer precedence, that their results were grossly interpreted by the writer of this pamphlet.
The author then poses the pressing question “If condoms work so well, why does the FDA request such a failure rate be on every box of condoms?” in response to the FDA policy that condom manufacturers label every box of condoms with “a pregnancy rate for each year of use of 14% for condoms used “typically” and 3% if they are used exactly as directed every time without fail.” (check out the source: http://www.fda.gov/cdrh/ode/contrlab.html)
The FDA defines “Typical Use rates” as those measured as if “the method either was not always used correctly or was not used with every act of sexual intercourse (e.g. sometimes forgot to take a birth control pill as directed and became pregnant) or was used correctly but failed anyway.” Well, obviously, if you’re not going to use the condom correctly, or at all, every time you have sex, somebody’s going to get pregnant.
So how about the answer to the question? The FDA requests that the failure rate is marked on every box of condoms in order to provide the consumer with the information he or she needs in order to make a wise purchase. That’s the job of the FDA, dumbass, to provide information to the public. The pamphlet left out that the FDA advises condom manufacturers to mark the box with the following: “If used properly, latex condoms will help to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV infection (AIDS) and many sexually transmitted diseases.”
The leaflet then concludes with a quote from the CDC: "The surest way to avoid transmission of sexually ttransmitted diseases is to abstain from sexual intercourse, or to be in a long-term mutually monogamous relationship with a partner who has been tested and you know is uninfected." The thoughtful author of this peace then adds "(a relationship normally referred to as marriage)." Um, no? You can have " a long-term, mutually-monogamous relationship with a partner who has been tested and you know is uninfected" and not refer to it as marriage. You can refer to it as, I don't know, "together," or "in a serious relationship."People have been having extra-marital sex ever since the dawn of time. It is possible to have a monogamous relationship without the social institution of marriage.
Yeah, I concur, abstinence is the surest way of preventing sexually transmitted diseases. But that's like saying "you'll never get food poisoning if you don't eat" or "you'll never trip if you don't walk." I'm sure there are some that would argue that abstinence just involves a little self-control, which is possible, but I honestly don't think that's going to solve anything, because sex is basic. I think that it is a basic biological need, just like food and water, which sounds dumb as hell, but you try telling that to the average fifteen-year-old.
Seriously, needing sex is a global, cross-cultural phenomenon, and repressing sexuality really kind of, no pun intended, fucks you up. Look what happened in the Victorian era, when sex was not spoken about in polite company. Rampant hysteria, children, that's what happened. Sexually-represesd women were going mental all over the place, what with the catatonia, the psychosomatic pain and the self-induced paralysis. It's how Freud came up with all his mad psychoanalytic theories. Although his theories have been largely debunked, there's something to them I think.
Anyway, it’s 3am, so I leave you with the following: NO FUCK FOR YOU!!
Listening to: "Flugufrelsarinn" by Sigur Ros